On Monday, February 10, I wrote a blog on the expressions the righteous and the just in Scripture. See here. I’m writing an immediate follow–up because I received three excellent questions about what I failed to comment upon.
Question 1: Why did Peter call Lot righteous in 2 Pet 2:7-8?
Peter wrote that God “delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy conduct of the wicked (for that righteous man, dwelling among them, tormented his righteous soul from day to day by seeing and hearing their lawless deeds…”
Peter uses the word righteous three times in describing Lot. And he calls him righteous, not because he believed in the coming Messiah for everlasting life (though he did), but because of his experience. He was living righteously.
My friend Bob Swift, who is now with the Lord, pointed to this verse to demonstrate that we are suffering for Jesus if we are tormented by the wickedness in our world today. Paul told us to “not be conformed to this world” (Rom 12:2). Many are. Instead, we are to grieve over the wickedness we see, just as Lot did.
Many Christians do not view Lot as having been a righteous man. But inspired Scripture does.
Question 2: Doesn’t Romans 4:4-5 say that righteousness is by faith alone, apart from works?
Paul distinguished between pay for work done (v 4) and justification by faith alone, where one’s “faith is accounted for righteousness.” So yes, a person has the imputed righteousness of Christ credited to him when he believes in Christ. However, in my blog, I was discussing the expressions the righteous and the just. I pointed out that only rarely do they refer to one’s position. They almost always refer to one’s experience.
What about the word righteousness? Is it used primarily of experience or of position? When referring to the righteousness of Christ, it is referring to His experience as well as to His Person. When referring to the righteousness of humans, it’s a mix. Often, it refers to our position (Rom 4:4-5; Gal 3:6; Phil 3:9.) But it does sometimes refer to our experience (e.g., Rom 6:16; 1 Cor 15:34; 2 Cor 9:10; Eph 5:9; 1 Tim 6:11). We are to pursue righteousness (1 Tim 6:11). Righteousness is a fruit of the Spirit (Eph 5:9). Obedience results in righteousness (Rom 6:16).
Question 3: What about Romans 1:17?
I should have discussed this key verse, since it does say, “the just shall live by faith,” or, as Hodges suggests, the just by faith shall live. Romans 1:16-17 is much misunderstood. Paul is not speaking there of the deliverance of unbelievers from eternal condemnation by believing in the Lord Jesus. He is speaking about the deliverance of believers from wrath in this life by living in the Spirit as he describes in Romans 5–8.
The expression the just in Rom 1:17 refers to those who are justified by faith in their position. However, the words shall live are a call for those who are just in their position to live righteously in their experience. Here is how Hodges explains this in his commentary on Romans:
Thus, according to Scripture (Hab 2:4), “Now the one who is righteous by faith shall live.” The righteous man, therefore, is the one who can live in precisely the sense Paul elaborates in Romans 6–8. In fact he states, “if by the Spirit you put to death the deeds of the body, you will live” (8:13). Life in the truly Christian sense of that term can only be “lived” by the one who is righteous by faith!
As all expositors know, the words by faith can be grammatically connected with either the righteous or with shall live. The latter connection has dominated the English versions (e.g., KJV, NKJV, NASB, NIV). But modern commentators seem to be moving in the direction of a connection with the righteous (so Nygren, Cranfield, Dunn, Moo). The Hebrew text of Habakkuk can also be understood in the same way, of course. Paul is not here inventing a meaning that suits his theology. On the contrary Hab 2:4 is a proof text for the point he is making. It is not to be doubted that he was well able to defend this meaning in the many synagogues where he had preached.
Although it is quite true that the Christian life can be said to be lived “by faith” (see Gal 2:20), in Romans, faith plays no role in Paul’s discussion of Christian living. Given the approach Paul takes in this epistle, he obviously desired that the word faith should be the crucial term only in his discussion of justification. Therefore, from Rom 3:22–5:2, the word faith occurs a total of twenty times. But from Rom 5:3–8:39 there is not even one occurrence! It is in no sense legitimate to say that in Romans the justified person is presented as living “by faith” (pp. 38-39).
I hope you find these three additional questions and answers helpful. Thanks for the dialogue. I learn, and we all learn, by interacting with each other on the meaning of Scripture––that which lasts forever.
Let the Word of Christ dwell in you richly, and you will keep grace in focus.
